Counter Counter Argument -- "There is Only One God"

By special request from a World Mission Society Church of God member, I will be addressing several key points and counterarguments that the WMSCOG uses to respond to objections.

Continuing the counter-counter-argument series...

Let's start with the argument:
The Bible says there is only one God, like in 1 Timothy 2:5, so how can there be two--God the Father and God the Mother?

Now let's consider the WMSCOG's counter-argument (with quotes from Truth of God the Mother, though the ideas appear on many websites) and responses to each part:

Think of Adam and Eve...

"Are Adam and Eve one person or two people? I think most people would agree and say they are two people. However, the Bible says they are one.

"Genesis 2:24 So a man will leave his father and mother and be united with his wife, and the two will become one body.

"According to God, Adam and Eve are one person, one body. Does this mean that God doesn't know how to count? Of course God knows how to count! But in the eyes of God, Adam and Eve are one."

The response is that since the two people in a married couple are considered "one," so are "Father and Mother" two who can also be considered "one," and therefore there is no contradiction with the verses that insist there is only one God.

First, there is a difference in being numerically one and metaphorically one. My husband and I are numerically two people, though metaphorically you can say that we are "one" in love, teamwork, finances, etc. If I'm going to travel some place exciting, I want to share the experience with my husband because we are deeply connected as "one" couple, but the airline will make us buy two seats, and on a crowded flight, those two seats might not even be next to each other.

Will the airline allow me to purchase just one seat for the two of us because we are "one" in marriage? Absolutely not, even if we could fit in one seat. That's because we are numerically two people.

So how do you know if the verses about "one" God are speaking numerically or metaphorically? You look at the context. The context tells you that there is numerically one God.

Also, considering Gen. 2:24 (and in Mark 10:8), when it says, "the two will become one flesh," this is a euphemism. Can you guess what expression is substituted by this euphemism? Read 1 Corinthians 6:16, "Do you not know that he who unites himself with a prostitute is one with her in body? For it is said, 'The two will become one flesh.'"

Yes, this phrase is talking about sex (please excuse my bluntness). Therefore, we can ask the WMSCOG, "If you insist that 'Father and Mother' are 'one' because in marriage 'two become one flesh,' then you are referring to their sexual union, right?"

Who sinned in the Garden of Eden?...

[Regarding Romans 5:12-17]
"Was it Adam who actually sinned in the Garden of Eden? People know that it was Eve who sinned first. But in these verses, it's Adam who gets blamed for sinning against God, even though God explicitly told both Adam and Eve not to eat from the tree of knowledge of good and evil....

"But because Adam and Eve are husband and wife, they are one body, the Bible regards them as one. And so only Adam is referenced here, almost as if Eve wasn't there. But we all know that she was. It's the same with God."

It is true that during the first sin incident with the fruit in the Garden of Eden, Eve sinned first, then Adam. It is also true that Adam takes the blame for the first sin, not only in Rom. 5:12-17 but also 1 Cor. 15:21-22. Is it because Adam and Eve are considered "one"? No.

For one thing, Eve does not escape blame (1 Tim. 2:13-14 and 2 Cor. 11:3). And both Adam and Eve received individual punishment (Gen. 3:16-19).

But why would the blame be given to Adam primarily? Here is a good explanation. Basically, Adam was created first and was put in authority. Adam had the role of leader, while Eve's role was as helper (Gen. 2:18). Adam failed to protect his wife and failed to admit to his sin when God asked him about it. Notice God spoke to Adam before speaking to Eve.

It's interesting that the writer of this counter-argument says God "explicitly told both Adam and Eve not to eat from the tree." Actually, God "explicitly" gave this command before Eve was created, so we only have record of Adam being told not to eat from the tree (Gen. 2:16-18). Eve knew about the command (Gen. 3:2-3), but we are not told specifically if she heard it directly from God or indirectly from Adam.

The example of the temple...

"Take the example of the temple. Most Christians know that the sanctuary has two parts -- the holy place and the most holy place. But to anyone standing outside the sanctuary, it looks like just one sanctuary. However, when you enter the temple, you can clearly see that there are two parts inside.

"I bring up the temple because, in the Bible, the temple represents God (John 2:21). So just as the temple looks like one from the outside, when in reality there are two parts inside, for many, God has existed as being only one. This shows our limited understanding of God, just as if we were standing on the outside of the temple."

The temple represented God's presence with His people. And it was in the Most Holy Place, where the Ark of the Covenant was kept, where God said His presence would appear in the cloud above the Ark (Lev. 16:2). If the WMSCOG's analogy were true, why were there not TWO Arks of the Covenant so that both rooms in the temple would have God's presence in this way? No, there was only ONE.

Also, if the temple represents God because Jesus said, "Destroy this temple, and I will raise it again in three days," speaking of His body (John 2:19-21), then what about 1 Cor. 6:19, "Do you not know that your bodies are temples of the Holy Spirit, who is in you...?" Does that mean we also have "two parts inside" since the temple represents us as well?

God refers to Himself in the plural...

"How would you explain Genesis 1:26 where God says, "Let us make human beings in our image, to be like us?" Here, God refers to Himself in the plural form, not singular. This is clear testimony that God is not only one, but two. Otherwise, if God were only one, the verse would read, 'Let me make human beings in my image, to be like me.'"

This show a lack of understanding of the Hebrew language. I've already written about the structure and use of the word "Elohim" (read all three parts).

Here's something else to think about. If there were two images of God--a male image and a female image, as the WMSCOG teaches--why doesn't Gen. 1:26 read, "Let us make man in our images..."?

Only one verse...

"Our faith cannot be based only on one verse. We cannot say that there is only one God the Father basing it solely on 1 Timothy....

"As true Christians who claim to believe in God and the Bible, we cannot deny God the Father and God the Mother who referred to Themselves as "us," even if in one verse, God is referred to as being only one."

There are MULTIPLE verses, not just one, that emphasize there is only ONE God. If you'd like to read them, start here or even here.  Do you want a list written by someone else? Try this one, or this one.

I'll be examining more of the WMSCOG's counterarguments in the near future. If there is one in particular you'd like me to address, please say so!

Conversation with Cyrus, a WMSCOG member

In my previous post regarding clues that the World Mission Society Church of God is false, one of those commenting was "Cyrus."  Cyrus is currently a member of the WMSCOG and is willing to engage in conversation to clarify some points.  Thank you, Cyrus!

Our conversation will take place right here, through the comment section of this post.  I hope it will serve as a good source of information for the rest of our readers here.  However, I respectfully request that the comments on this post be limited to just Cyrus.  For anyone else who wishes to comment about this conversation, please visit the forum (examiningthewmscog.com/forum), or send me an email.  Thank you!

First, some ground rules, Cyrus, for you and me:

• Each comment should be made in two parts, a response to the previous point and the raising of a question.
• Response -- We should respond to the question that was last put forth, keeping in mind the purpose of explaining and encouraging understanding and not simply fighting.  Also, please avoid using phrases such as "You don't understand because you are not one of God's chosen" (more examples here).  We can also respond to the previous response, as long as it doesn't include an additional question that needs an answer.
• Question -- We should ask a question, either to further pursue the issue, or raise a different point.  For the ease of following the conversation, please limit the question to one point.  Do not ask a question related to your response and ask a new question as well.
• If we think the other's response is incomplete, inadequate, or needs to be clarified, first we should answer their question (give our response), then our question should concern the previous response.  In other words, don't avoid their question in order to focus on their response.  In this way, we should never be talking about more than two topics at once.
• Timeliness is nice, but life is busy.  A delay in answering should not be taken negatively or cause concern, unless there has been silence for more than two weeks.

I hope that is all clear.  Thank you, again, and now let's get started.  You posed the first question...

---

"Let us make man in our image... Male and female He created them" Genesis 1:26-27. "the Spirit and the bride say come... Take the free gift of the water of life." Revelation 22. The bride of christ is His bride. Guests are invited to the wedding supper, not the bride. We are the guests. Right?

My response:
The first part of what you wrote (Gen. 1:26-27) is about the word Elohim.  I have written about that here: Part 1, Part 2, and Part 3.  I'm going to focus on your question about Revelation 22.  I understand your question to be, "We are the guests at the wedding supper.  Therefore, doesn't someone else have to be the bride of Christ?"

I have heard the WMSCOG say that the Church cannot be both the bride and the guests at the wedding.  But please consider this...

God is called the father of the Israelites, but God is also called the husband of Israel.  But how can the Israelites be both the children and the wife of God?  It doesn't make sense, does it?

It does when you consider that individually, the people were counted as God's children.  But corporately, together as the nation, they were considered as God's bride

In the same way, individually, we are each invited to become part of the Church, the body of believers.  But corporately, together as the Church body, we are the bride of Christ.

God uses descriptive language to help us understand our relationship with Him.

I hope you are able to understand that this is a valid, alternate interpretation of the same verses.

My question for you:
The WMSCOG teaches that there are two distinct Gods.  How do you reconcile that with verses such as these which declare there is only one God?  (Note that all of these quotes use the singular word for God.)
"For I am God, and there is no other" (Isaiah 45:22 and 46:9)
"Is there a God besides me?  Indeed, there is no other rock; I know not one." (Isaiah 44:8)
"Before Me there was no God formed; nor shall there be after Me." (Isaiah 43:10)
"Now to the King eternal, immortal, invisible, the only God," (1 Timothy 1:17)

Ok, your turn.  Please remember the two parts, response and question.

The Image of God

Genesis 1:26-27
Then God said, “Let us make mankind in our image, in our likeness.... So God created mankind in his own image, in the image of God he created them; male and female he created them.

This is probably the main verse the WMSCOG uses to show that there is a "Mother God."  I've studied the word "Elohim" already, but now I'd like to focus on the phrase, "in the image of God he created them; male and female he created them."

The WMSCOG says this proves there are two gods.  Since God created male and female people, then there must be a god of the male image and a god of the female image, they say.

It is clear in the Bible that there is only ONE God, so why did He create both male and female in His image? 
I explored this question before, but I came across a good article that examines the subject quite well and thought you'd like to read it.  It's a bit long, but worth the read.  Check it out...
God as Tender as a Mother?

God is not human, and therefore is neither male nor female as humans are.  But when we look at the strengths of men and women, we find that God demonstrates characteristics of both.  For instance, He is strong and commanding like a typical man, and yet nurturing and comforting like a typical woman.

The WMSCOG represents "Mother God" as all the wonderful things we expect our earthly mothers to be: tender, caring, sacrificing themselves for their children, the special love of a mother.  Do they need a second god to be what they believe their "Father God" is lacking?

There is only ONE God, and the one true God we know from the Bible is already the perfect father and mother combined.

ONE God -- Has Another Been Hiding?

How does the World Mission Society Church of God reconcile their doctrine of two gods with so many verses showing that there is only one God?

"There is the Savior's name for each age, but the name of God as female does not appear.  For God the Father stands as a representative, just as only a father's name appears on a doorplate in the home though there is a mother.  In the book of Romans it is described that through one man, Adam, sin entered the world.  Actually it was Eve who sinned first, but Adam's name was representatively mentioned.  It is the same with the Savior's name for each age; only the name of God the Father has been representatively used."
from the sermon "The Elohim Gods."

So apparently the WMSCOG believes that when God says, "Let us...," it means "God the Father and God the Mother."  And when God speaks with I and me, it also means "God the Father and God the Mother," because God the Father is representing both of them.  Just like when only a father's name is on the doorplate of the home, even though the wife (mother) lives there too.

No, that doesn't work.  Let's think about it...
Think of a home that belongs to Mr. and Mrs. Example.  We knock on the door, and Mr. Example opens it and talks to us.  Mrs. Example is in one of the bedrooms, so we can't see or hear her.

If Mr. Example says, "This house belongs to me.  I live here.  I am in charge of my house." -- Even though Mrs. Example also lives there and shares the rule of the household, it is still a true and acceptable statement.

On the other hand, if Mr. Example says, "No one else lives here but me.  I am the only one in charge of this house.  I am alone here." -- Those are not true statements.  He would be lying.  Even speaking as the representative of his household, he cannot make statements like that truthfully.

Just to review, God said...
"I am God [El], and there is no other." (Isaiah 45:22)
"Is there a God [Eloah] besides me?  Indeed there is no other Rock; I know not one." (Isaiah 44:8)
(El and Eloah are both singular.)

God cannot truthfully make the statements He did, if there was a Mother God waiting in the wings for her time to come.

ONE God -- More Verses

In my last post, I showed verses from Isaiah where God (YHWH) claims to be the only God (which He is--He cannot lie).  Here are more verses from that also tell us there is only ONE God (not two, as the WMSCOG claims).

Note that in the New Testament, the Greek word for God, Theos, is singular.

My emphasis is shown in bold....

“I am the LORD your God, who brought you out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of bondage. You shall have no other gods before Me."  (Exodus 20:2-3)

"Now see that I, even I, am He,
      And there is no God besides Me;
      I kill and I make alive;
      I wound and I heal;
      Nor is there any who can deliver from My hand." (Deuteronomy 32:39)

"Now therefore, O LORD our God, I pray, save us from his hand, that all the kingdoms of the earth may know that You are the LORD God, You alone." (2 Kings 19:19)

"Then you shall know that I am in the midst of Israel:

      I am the LORD your God

      And there is no other.

      My people shall never be put to shame."  (Joel 2:27)

Jesus answered him, “The first of all the commandments is: ‘Hear, O Israel, the LORD our God, the LORD is one. And you shall love the LORD your God with all your heart, with all your soul, with all your mind, and with all your strength.’ This is the first commandment.  And the second, like it, is this: ‘You shall love your neighbor as yourself.’  There is no other commandment greater than these.” So the scribe said to Him, “Well said, Teacher. You have spoken the truth, for there is one God, and there is no other but He." (Mark 12:29-32)

Therefore concerning the eating of things offered to idols, we know that an idol is nothing in the world, and that there is no other God but one.  For even if there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth (as there are many gods and many lords), yet for us there is one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we for Him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, through whom are all things, and through whom we live.  (1 Corinthians 8:4-6)

You believe that there is one God. You do well. Even the demons believe—and tremble! (James 2:19)

Now to the King eternal, immortal, invisible, the only God, be honor and glory for ever and ever. Amen. (1 Timothy 1:17 NIV)

How can you believe, who receive honor from one another, and do not seek the honor that comes from the only God? (John 5:44, word of Jesus)

ONE God -- Verses from Isaiah

I was reading in the book of Isaiah and was struck once again at how often God reminds us that He is the only God to be worshipped.  There is only ONE God, not two as the WMSCOG teaches.  God would not say something in the Bible that He would have to contradict later in order to reveal "Mother God" to the world.  No, that would make Him out to be a liar, which He cannot be.

The following verses are from Isaiah chapters 42-46.  Look how often God repeats it in these five chapters.
I'll include the Hebrew word used for God in each.  You can see, it doesn't matter whether you're talking about "Elohim," "El," or "Eloah," the LORD (YHWH, Jehovah) is the only one.

"I am the LORD, that is My name;
      And My glory I will not give to another,
      Nor My praise to carved images." (Is. 42:8)

“You are My witnesses,” says the LORD,
“And My servant whom I have chosen,
 That you may know and believe Me,
 And understand that I am He.
 Before Me there was no God [El] formed,
 Nor shall there be after Me.
 I,even I, am the LORD,
 And besides Me there is no savior." (Is. 43:10-11)

Thus says the LORD, the King of Israel,
    And his Redeemer, the LORD of hosts:
   "I am the First and I am the Last;
    Besides Me there is no God [Elohim]." (Is. 44:6)

"Do not fear, nor be afraid;
      Have I not told you from that time, and declared it?
      You are My witnesses.
      Is there a God [Eloah] besides Me?
      Indeed there is no other Rock;
      I know not one.’” (Is. 44:8)

I am the LORD, and there is no other;
There is no God [Elohim] besides Me.
I will gird you, though you have not known Me,
That they may know from the rising of the sun to its setting
That there is none besides Me.
I am the LORD, and there is no other; (Is. 45:5-6)

This is what the LORD says: ... "They will bow down before you and plead with you, saying, 'Surely God [El] is with you, and there is no other; there is no other god [Elohim].'" (Is. 45:14 NIV)

For thus says the LORD,
      Who created the heavens,
      Who is God [Elohim],
      Who formed the earth and made it,
      Who has established it,
      Who did not create it in vain,
      Who formed it to be inhabited:
      “I am the LORD, and there is no other." (Is. 45:18)

"Tell and bring forth your case;
      Yes, let them take counsel together.
      Who has declared this from ancient time?
      Who has told it from that time?
      Have not I, the LORD?
      And there is no other God [Elohim] besides Me,
      A just God [El] and a Savior;
      There is none besides Me.
      Look to Me, and be saved,
      All you ends of the earth!
      For I am God [El], and there is no other." (Is. 45:21-22)

"Remember the former things of old,
      For I am God [El], and there is no other;
      I am God [Elohim], and there is none like Me," (Is. 46:9)

Is God Male or Female? Both or Neither?

Genesis 1:26-27

Then God said, “Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness; let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, over the birds of the air, and over the cattle, over all the earth and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth.”  So God created man in His own image; in the image of God He created him; male and female He created them.

The WMSCOG says that since "God created man in his own image" and there are both male and female humans, then there must be two "Gods"--a God of the male image ("God the Father") and a God of the female image ("God the Mother").

I've already shown that the Hebrew word Elohim used here does not indicate that there are plural "Gods" creating the human race (see my study on Elohim, part 1, part 2, and part 3).  If it did, then "said" and "created" would also have also be plural verbs, but they are singular.  Plus, it would have said "their own image" and "they created," but those pronouns are singular also.

But besides that, what about gender--does God have a gender?  Is God male or female, neither or both?  And is that what being made "in his image" is about?
The questions below in red are what came to mind through this study.

If humans are created in God's image, does that mean God has a body like ours?
No, God is spirit, not flesh like us humans.  (Yes, Jesus was God manifest in the flesh, but we're talking about the overall nature of God.)
John 4:24   God is Spirit, and those who worship Him must worship in spirit and truth.
The Bible talks about "spiritual bodies," but they are different than our earthly bodies, so we cannot say that God's image is a body like ours.  (1 Corinthians 15:40,44)

Is there any place for the differences between the genders in the spirit realm? 
These two verses would indicate no:
Mark 12:25   For when they rise from the dead, they neither marry nor are given in marriage, but are like angels in heaven.
Galatians 3:28   There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus.

God is referred to as "He" throughout the Bible.  Does that mean He is male?
No, not necessarily.  All nouns in Hebrew are either feminine or masculine.  There are no neutral nouns (it).  Everything is a "he" or a "she," even the door, the rock, and the fence.  It's interesting to note that while Hebrew nouns for "God" are grammatically masculine, the Hebrew word for God's "Spirit" is grammatically feminine.  It's not possible in Hebrew to refer to God as gender-neutral, so there is still the possibility that He is neither male nor female (or that He is both at once).

How about the masculine images of God that we see in the Bible--the Father and the Son, and even the Bridegroom?  Does that mean He's male?
There are some feminine images of God too.  They appear less often, but they are there.  For example, God is pictured as a mother (Isaiah 49:14-15, 66:13), a woman in labor (Isaiah 42:24), having a womb and giving birth (Job 38:29, Deuteronomy 32:18)...
Then there is "El Shaddai" -- This Hebrew title of God means "The All Sufficient God" and is usually translated "God Almighty."  It comes from the word "shad" which means "breast."  So it describes God's sufficiency like a mother who is able to provide all the nourishment her new baby needs.  It's used 48 times.  Here it is in Genesis 17:1
When Abram was ninety-nine years old, the LORD appeared to Abram and said to him, “I am Almighty God [El-Shaddai]; walk before Me and be blameless."

So is this proof that there is "God the Mother" as well as "God the Father" just as the WMSCOG teaches?
No.  If  you look more carefully, those verses that show God in a feminine light refer to the LORD, which is YHWH, or Jehovah.  The WMSCOG teaches that Jehovah is "Father God" and not "Mother God."  So these verses are NOT referring to their separate "Mother God."  Instead they describe feminine traits of Jehovah.

Then, is God both male and female at the same time, since He is pictured sometimes as male and sometimes as female?
No, not exactly.  He is also pictured as a...
lion (Jeremiah 35:28 and 50:44)
bear (Lamentations 3:10 and Hosea 13:8)
hen (Matthew 23:37 / Luke 13:34)
rock (Deuteronomy 32:18 and 2 Samuel 22:47)
fire (Deuteronomy 4:24)
dove (John 1:32)
God is pictured as having hands (Exodus 33:22-23), feet (Isaiah 66:1; Nahum 1:3), and eyes (2 Chronicles 16:9), but also wings and feathers (Psalm 63:7 and 91:4).

Is God literally all of these things?  Then neither must He be literally male or female.
All of these descriptions of God are literary devices (anthropomorphisms or personifications) to show God to us in a way we can understand.

I will conclude with a quote from a dear family friend, who is a Bible scholar, former pastor, and missionary worker.  (Thank you, Brother, for your guidance with this study.)

"Being made in the image of God has nothing to do with gender or flesh, but that man and woman were made in the likeness of God's morality (holiness without sin), socially made to have fellowship both with God and man (remember God came seeking Adam and Eve in the garden to walk with them) and mentally able to make decisions and choices, reason and love all of which separated man and woman from the animal kingdom."

For more information about God as male or female, please read The Image of God here.

Elohim, Part 3

So the question I left with last time was...
If Elohim is a singular God, why did he speak of "us" and "our" in Genesis 1:26, 3:22, 11:7, and in Isaiah 6:8?

I believe in the Trinity, so I would like to think that God is speaking to Himself as in Father, Son, and Holy Spirit.  But these verses are not what the concept of the Trinity is based on, and it is not necessary that God is speaking to His own Trinity.

A single person speaking in terms of "us," "we," and "our" when only meaning his own one self?  It happens in everyday life...

Have you heard of Queen Victoria, when she was not happy, saying, "We are not amused."  She didn't say "I am not amused" although that's what she meant.  This "royal we" happens with rulers all the time.  You can even look up "royal we" on Wikipedia--it's a well known phenomenon.
How about phrases like these.  Have you ever used these and really meant "I" or "me"?...
"Oh, yes, we'll be there!"
"Give us a chance!"
This happens with us regular people too.

Here is an example from the Bible:
Daniel 2:36
This is the dream. Now we will tell the interpretation of it before the king.
Daniel talks about himself as "we" instead of "I" when it was really Daniel alone who received the interpretation of the dream and was taken to the king.  (See Daniel 2:19 & 24)

The "royal we" is one thing happening with these verses in Genesis and Isaiah.  But I want to show you something else.  A leader (like a King or Queen) who has a council, a group of their closest advisors, will use "we" when addressing his council.  It doesn't mean the other members of the council are also kings.  It happens today and through history, and you can observe it in the Bible.  Watch how King Ahab used "we" and "I":

2 Chronicles 18:5
Then the king of Israel gathered the prophets together, four hundred men, and said to them, “Shall we go to war against Ramoth Gilead, or shall I refrain?”
So they said, “Go up, for God will deliver it into the king’s hand.” King Ahab says, "Shall we go to war..., or shall I refrain?"  His council of prophets answers, "Go."  This "go" is not "take your army and all of you (plural) go"--it's a command for "you (singular) go."

Not that God actually needs advisors, but could He have a royal council which He converses with?  Yes!  Check out these verses...

Jeremiah 23:18 & 22 (NIV)
For which of them has stood in the council of the LORD,
      to see or hear His word?...
But if they had stood in My council,
      they would have proclaimed my words to my people,
      and would have turned them from their evil ways
      and from their evil deeds.
"They" in these verses are the false prophets.  They did not know what went on in God's council.

1 Kings 22:19-22
Then Micaiah said, “Therefore hear the word of the LORD: I saw the LORD sitting on His throne, and all the host of heaven standing by, on His right hand and on His left.  And the LORD said, ‘Who will persuade Ahab to go up, that he may fall at Ramoth Gilead?’ So one spoke in this manner, and another spoke in that manner.  Then a spirit came forward and stood before the LORD, and said, ‘I will persuade him.’   The LORD said to him, ‘In what way?’ So he said, ‘I will go out and be a lying spirit in the mouth of all his prophets.’ And the LORD said, ‘You shall persuade him, and also prevail. Go out and do so.’What a vision of the royal council of God Micaiah had!  Here's God allowing His angels to offer suggestions, and He accepts one of them.

Job 1:6 (NIV)
One day the angels came to present themselves before the LORD, and Satan also came with them.
Job 2:1 (NIV)
On another day the angels came to present themselves before the LORD, and Satan also came with them to present himself before him.
Here it is again--God surrounded by His angels for a meeting.

So there you go--God sometimes refers to Himself with the "royal we" because He is KING and has His heavenly council about Him.  It does NOT mean that He is speaking to another God with Him.

The conclusion is that Elohim uses a plural suffix with singular adjectives/verbs/etc. not to indicate plural Gods, but one God who is superior, majestic, great, and absolute.  And that He is.

Those of us who believe in the Trinity, the three-in-one God, can see hints of the Trinity in this interesting plural form of Elohim, used in a singular sense to describe God.  That, supported by the rest of Bible's insistence that there is only one God, makes it clear that indeed, there is only one true God.

But if God made humans in His image, and there are both male and female, doesn't that have to mean that there is a male God for the male image and a female God for the female image (as the WMSCOG claims)?  No.  But that's a topic for next time...

Elohim, Part 2

Previously, I looked at the use of the word Elohim.  Although it has a plural suffix, when referring to the God of the Israelites it is surrounded by singular verbs, adjectives, and pronouns.  This type of structure in the Hebrew language indicates that the noun is not plural, but majestic, superior, great, or absolute.  The noun itself is still singular, as shown by its verbs, adjectives and pronouns, but it's meaning is magnified.

Throughout the Bible, God repeatedly tell the Israelites that He is the only God to be worshipped.  And this is the essence of the first commandment:
Exodus 20:3
You shall have no other gods before [besides] me.

And yet, the WMSCOG will show you the word Elohim and its plural suffix and insist that there are two Gods.  They try to prove this using a few verses where God speaks and refers to "us" or "our":

Genesis 1:26
Then God said, “Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness...

The WMSCOG combines this with Gen. 1:27 to try to show that there is both a male and female God.  I'll deal with that another day.  But right now I just want to see whether these verses talk about two gods or one.  God talks about "us" making man in "our" image.  Does that mean there are plural Gods?

Do you see the part just before that which says, "Then God said"?  The "said" in that phrase is singular--He said.  If there were plural Gods, it would have been a plural verb--They said.  And then look a little farther to verse 27.  I'm going to type it out here--notice what I've put in bold:
So God [He] created man in His own image; in the image of God He created him; male and female He created them.

If there were truly two Gods, this passage would have said, "God [they] created man in their own image, in the image of God they created him; male and female they created them."  But it doesn't.  There is only ONE God.

Genesis 3:22 (in the Garden of Eden)
Then the LORD God said, “Behold, the man has become like one of Us, to know good and evil....

Genesis 11:7 (the Tower of Babel)
Come, let Us go down and there confuse their language, that they may not understand one another’s speech.”

Isaiah 6:8 (Isaiah's Commission)
Also I heard the voice of the Lord, saying:
      “ Whom shall I send,
      And who will go for Us?”

In these verses, God talks about "us" again.  Is there more than one God?  No.  Every time we read that Elohim said something, it is ALWAYS a singular verb--He said.  We also read that He (not They) sent Adam from the Garden of Eden, that He (not They) scattered the people from the Tower of Babel, and that He (not They) answered Isaiah.
There is only ONE God.

Why would any singular individual talk about themselves as "we" or "us"?  It happens.  I'll write about that next time...

Click here to go on to Part 3.

Elohim, Part 1

The WMSCOG points the the Hebrew word "Elohim" to prove that there are 2 Gods, a "Mother God" and a "Father God".  They say that since the word "Elohim" has a plural ending, that it must mean there is more than one God, and then they go about to try to prove the existence of "Mother God."  (Incidentally, other groups use this same word to try to prove a God family or other polytheistic doctrine.)

But they don't tell you the whole story about the word Elohim and the language structure around it.

If you have studied any foreign languages (as I have), you know that not all languages have the same type of structure and grammar.  In English, you can usually tell when a noun is singular or plural by looking at the noun itself and at the verb it's paired with.
The fast boy runs.
The fast boys run.
It is less noticeable in the past tense when the verb doesn't change at all.  Both the boy and the boys "ran."

But in Hebrew, the changes are more significant when singular becomes plural.  You can notice the plural form also in the adjectives and the verb (whether it's present "run" or past tense "ran").  All the words that refer to the noun become plural.  (It's similar in German, Spanish, and many other languages.)
So in Hebrew, you would see it more like this:
The fast (plural) boys (plural) (they) ran.

The word Elohim, although it is a noun with a plural ending, is not always used with a plural meaning.  When it refers to God, it is accompanied by singular adjectives, pronouns, and verbs.

The Hebrew language uses what is called a "majestic plural" or "plural intensive" in which a noun with a plural suffix is accompanied by singular adjectives, pronouns, and verbs.  In these cases, it does NOT indicate a plural number, but that the singular noun is superior, majestic, great, mighty, or absolute.

This is not unique to the word Elohim.  Here are a few other nouns (there are more!) that have a plural ending, but are used in a singular sense:
The word used for "life" in Gen. 27:46 and Job 10:12
The word used for "righteousness" in Isa. 33:15
The word used for "master" in Isa. 19:4

It's also interesting to note that "Elohim" is used to refer to Moses in Exodus 7:1.  Is Moses a plural?  No.

Elohim is used to refer to God more than 2000 times in the Bible and is accompanied by singular verbs, adjectives, and pronouns in all but a handful of those instances.  I'll talk about the few exceptions next time.

Through the whole of the Bible, God consistently makes the point that He is the ONLY God to be worshipped--ONE God.  I do believe in the Trinity, but in that there is still only ONE God.

To take the word Elohim, and say that since it has a plural suffix, there must be two or more true Gods...well, that shows a superficial understanding and a lack of scholarship.  It also indicates a poor knowledge of the structure of the Hebrew language. 
Think about it--wouldn't you want the person who is giving you all the "secrets and mysteries" of the Bible (such as "Mother") to understand Hebrew!?

If you'd like more resources about the word Elohim, try these links (I'll also list them in my "study helps" page):
"Elohim, Plural or Singular?"
"You Can Prove What Elohim Means"
"The Hebrew Name for God--Elohim"

Click here to go on to Part 2.

Plural or Singular God?

It's clear that the WMSCOG believes in TWO gods--a father and a mother.
Yet why so often do they refer to their gods in the singular sense? And with masculine pronouns?

Here are examples, taken from the sermon "Overcome Temptation" from the church website, WATV.org:
"Sometimes God puts trials into our lives. It is not because He wants us to fall into error. God loves us so much."
"The 144,000 are the ones who follow God to the end wherever He leads them."
"Let's fear God and give Him glory, absolutely trusting and following Him"

I notice this happens a lot. Why don't they say things like...?
"Sometimes our Gods put trials into our lives. It's not because They want us to fall into error. Our Gods love us so much."
"The 144,000 are the ones who follow our Gods to the end where ever They lead them."
"Let's fear our Gods and give Them glory, absolutely trusting and following Them."

Is it only the father god that gives trials? Is it only the father god that leads the 144,000? Is it only the father god that should be feared and given glory, trusted and followed?

Or perhaps the father god is the dominant god, and the mother god is a minor, secondary god? Is the mother not equal in status or power with the father god?

Why aren't they consistent in the way they refer to their plural gods? Do they really secretly believe in just ONE god? But then that would ruin their whole argument about "Elohim" meaning two gods...